Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 19.06.2025 08:45
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
According to Trump, Ukraine started the war. Why?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
He said he loves me, but why is it difficult for him to leave his wife?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?